NEW TEST –
THIS IS A TESTAMENT
Edited by Hugh Fogelman
A
FORMER PASTOR 1 ASKS “If you think I am wrong, then answer these questions;” WITHOUT
taking anything out of context, mistranslating or imposing a pre-conceived
notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles)
Why
does the subject of 2
Samuel 7.14 “commit iniquity” if,
according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if,
according to John 13.18, this is Jesus in verse 9? Is Christianity so shallow
that it must take certain verses out of context in a chapter ignoring what the
author actually meant?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5
mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25,
John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69:30-31 (who
Christians mistakenly established is Jesus) declaring that praise and
thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice?
Why does God, in Jeremiah. 31:29-30, make
a point of stressing that “everyone will
die for his own iniquity”―immediately before introducing the new
covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a
rather strange way for the “tutor to lead
us to Christ?”
When
does the new covenant
of Jeremiah 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t verse
34 happened yet?
Why
will there be sin
sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament (NT) is fixed
that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25;
Ezekiel 44: 27, 29; Ezekiel 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why
is Torah law going
forth from Zion
in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of
Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah
2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the
Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and
replaced it, according to the NT? (Ezekiel 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE
FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means
anything,” according to Paul? (Galatians 5.6, Ezekiel 44.7) Whose opinion
should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why
does “forever” have an expiration date in
Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Psalms 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142), whereas
in Judaism, it means “forever”?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the
messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
Think!
How can Jesus be qualified to be the
messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through
the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jeremiah 22:28-30, Matthew 1.11,12)
How
can Jesus be
qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she
came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line?
(Luke 3:31, 1 Chronicles.
22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s
genealogies be correct, and “divinely”
inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan
and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers
have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New
Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and
CANNOT be incorrect? The SOURCE BIBLE is wrong?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the
genealogies? (1 Timothy1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why does Hebrews 8.9 lie about what God said in Jeremiah 31.32?
Why does Hebrews 10.5 lie about what God said in Psalms 40.6?
Why does 2 Corinthians 3 lie about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why does John 19.37 lie about what God said in Zechariah 12.10?
Why
does Romans 9.33 and
2 Pet. 2.8 lie about what God said in
Isaiah 28.16?
Why does Romans 10.6-8 lie about what God said in Deuteronomy 30.12-14?
Why does
Romans leave out Deuteronomy 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and
14???
Why does
Romans 11:26-27 lie about what God said in Isaiah
59:20-21?
Why does
Matthew 12.21 lie
about what God said in Isaiah 42.4?
Why does
Matthew 1.12 lie
about what God said in 1 Chronicles 3.19?
Why does
Matthew 2.6 lie
about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why does Luke
4:18-19 lie
about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
Why does Jesus
lie
in Matthew 5.43 about what God said in Leviticus 19.18?
Why does Paul, in Romans 9 does:24-26, leave out the
first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the
second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does
Matthew 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s
son?
Where
in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse,
“And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23? Matthew makes
it appear the Jewish Scriptures said that.
Why are the holy
and inspired men of the New Testament so ignorant of the Hebrew Scriptures?
Why doesn’t
Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Matthew 23;
35; Zech 1:1,2; 2 Chronicles 24:20,21)
Why does Jesus
change God’s law (Matthew 5:32, Luke 16:18―declaring every legally
divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman
an adulterer), if “I did not come to
abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls
one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called
least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Matthew. 5:17, 19)
Why do most
Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and change His
words, “take away all iniquity... that we
may present our lips as bulls” (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for
sacrifice) to “... the fruit of our
lips?”
Why do
Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52 or 2 Sam
12:13 or Leviticus 5:11-13 or Psalms 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which demonstrate
that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their sins forgiven, or verses
like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea 6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Samuel
15.22 which say clearly that God actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to
blood sacrifice, or Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER
EVEN COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES???
Why are
there numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were forgiven
through prayer and repentance―WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such as David in 2 Sam
12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah―and not a single story, ever, of
someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in order to be forgiven?
How can Jesus
be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised, if
outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Exodus 12:43,45,48)
Why is the New
Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it comes to the
2nd half of Exodus 12.46 (see John 19.36), but not at all concerned with these
laws when it comes to Exodus 12: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46,
or 48?
What good
is Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one
exception, Leviticus 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the unintentional
sinner? (Leviticus 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)
Why did God,
in Jeremiah 31:16, tell Rachel that her children would return, if He was
referring to the dead children in Matthew 2:16? Were they going to come back to
life?
Why are the
nations putting their hands on their mouth in Micah 7:16, much like in Isaiah
52:15? What is it that they’re seeing and being ashamed of?
Why did the
church put an unnatural chapter break between Isaiah 52:15 and 53:1?
Why does the
servant in Isaiah 53:10 have physical children (“zera”/seed) if it refers to
Jesus?
If “zera”
really means spiritual children in Isaiah 53, why do all Christians agree it means physical offspring
in every other place in the bible that it is used to refer to people?
If “zera”/seed
really means spiritual children, which ONE of the world’s Christians is the true child of
Jesus, since according to Paul in Galatians 3:16, “seed” refers to only one
person?
Why are there
many clear prophecies which state that Israel is despised and afflicted,
but none which say this about the messiah?
Why is the
automatic Christian response to the problems of Isaiah 53 ALWAYS to quote the
rabbis they otherwise despise and mock and whose writings they don’t believe
in, that Jesus berated and Paul called “men who turn away from the truth”
(Titus 1.14) ???
Why did the
disciples not understand what Jesus was talking about in Luke 18:31-34 and Mark
9:32, if it was always common knowledge among the Jews that the messiah was to
suffer, die, and rise from the dead?
Why did Jesus
make predictions that didn’t come true, if that’s a sure sign of a false
prophet? (Matthew 16:38,
Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27,
Deuteronomy 18:20-22)
Why does God
the Father know something Jesus does not know (Mark 13:32) if Jesus IS the Everlasting Father, and
the Mighty God, according to Isaiah 9.6?
Why do
Christians translate the word “moshiach”
correctly as “an anointed one” every
time it appears in the Torah, except for in Daniel 9?
Why do
Christians translate the word “ca’ari”
correctly as “like a lion” every time
it appears in the Torah, except
for in Psalm 22:17?
Why do
Christians translate the words “y’mei
olom” correctly as “days of old”
every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Micah 5:2?
Why do
Christians translate the word “bar”
correctly to “cleanliness” or “purity” every time it appears in the
Torah, except
for in Psalm 2:12? Why is it that 5 verses earlier King David knew the correct
word for “son,” but not in verse 12?
Why don’t Christians
translate “ha’almah” as “virgin” in Proverbs 30:19, if that’s
what it means? (What the four “ways”
in vs. 19 have in common is that they leave no trace, as evidenced by vs. 20
that follows.)
Why did the
Septuagint authors use “parthenos” in Genesis to describe Dina who had just
been raped, if it means virgin according to messianic authorities?
If Isaiah 7:14 refers to the virgin birth of
Jesus, via “dual prophecy” (since it obviously can’t refer to him via the
context), then whose was the other virgin birth that occurred at the time of
the prophecy?
* Why are there numerous
prophecies about gentiles bowing and apologizing to the Jews in the last days,
and admitting they (the gentiles) have been wrong, and not a single prophecy
the other way around―of the Jews apologizing to the gentiles―if it
is indeed the Jews who are wrong? (see my messianic prophecies list) *
* * Why, if our salvation depends on it,
does the Hebrew Bible (Source Document) NOT command anyone to believe in the
messiah when he comes? * *
* * * Why do all the prophecies that
Jesus supposedly fulfilled deal only with the PERSON of the messiah, which the
Hebrew Bible barely mentions, and have nothing to with the ACCOMPLISHMENTS of
the messiah, about which the Torah is very specific? * * *
* * * * Why is it that all of
the so-called prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are only things that
are of no practical advantage to anyone, and do nothing to improve the quality
of anyone’s life, while all of the prophecies that he FAILED to fulfill are of
tremendous benefit to every individual on the planet, and all of mankind as a
whole? (For example, how does a virgin birth that happened 2,000 years ago, or
Jesus’ being thirsty and being offered vinegar, or being born in Bethlehem, or
being killed with a robber, or riding on a donkey, etc... help improve any
person’s life at all? How do any of these “fulfillments” solve a single problem
in anyone’s or any peoples’ life? Yet, on the other hand, when there is world
peace, and all the evil people are gone, and all the sick are healed, etc...
Now THERE are some messianic prophecies all mankind can use!!! ) * * * *
* * * Why is it that all of the
prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that CANNOT BE
PROVEN, while all of the prophecies that Jesus did NOT yet fulfill, on the
other hand, are all things that COULD NOT BE DENIED IF HE HAD fulfilled
them―even just ONE of them??? * * *
* * * * * Why is it that the
ONLY way to fit Jesus into the Hebrew Bible’s messianic prophecies is through
the use of extreme force? Why is one or more of the following methods ALWAYS
required?
1) Taking verses out of context;
2) Mistranslating;
3) Placing a 2,000 year gap (at
least) in the middle of a verse―totally unjustified by the
context―i.e. sweeping any failure of Jesus to fulfill the scriptures
under the rug of the 2nd coming; or
4) Making verses up?
Why does the Torah NEVER ONCE
mention Jesus clearly, if it’s so important that we believe in him? * * * * *
ARE ALL OF THE ABOVE FACTS JUST
TREMENDOUS, AMAZING, UNBELIEVABLE COINCIDENCES??? NO!
If God changed his mind about so
very many crucial things He said in the Torah, as demonstrated above, and now
wants us to believe in Jesus, why did He NOT come down to ALL of us, and
endorse Jesus in person to make it clear to us; just as He came down to all 3 million of His
children at Mt. Sinai to endorse Moses and
make sure we would accept the Torah forever? (Exodus 19:9,11,17; Exodus
24.17)
Why would God break one of His
own commandments, “You shall not place a
stumbling block before the blind” (Leviticus19.14), since according to 2
Corinthians 3.14 and 4.4, I am blind, and according to Romans 9.32, 1 Peter
2.8, and 1 Corinthians 1.23, the above challenges are all part of “a stumbling
stone?”
Why would God trick us, and
present us with such tremendous difficulties as shown by the above questions,
and then throw us into hell for rejecting an apparent false god, who’s really
not false, if “God our Savior desires all
men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth?” (1 Timothy 2.4)
WHY IS THE CHRISTIAN GOD SUCH A
SADIST??? AND WHY DO CHRISTIANS EXPECT JEWS TO WANT TO EMBRACE HIM???
Yes, I want to know too –
someone please answer all the questions from the ex-pastor
Footnote:
1. Pastor Craig Lyons, M.Div: 902 Cardigan, Garland, Texas
75040
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