Hugh Fogelman



Christians maintain Jesus was the Passover Lamb, a “HUMAN” sacrifice for the sins of all. But what does the Hebrew bible ― Old Testament (OT) ― say about this? Remember, Christianity accepts the OT as factual as demonstrated by it being incorporated in the front of the New testament. With this in mind, two points must be addressed.

ONE:  Christians claim Jesus was a sacrifice for the sins of all, meaning all people for all sins for all times. Chapter 4 of Leviticus lists offerings that are “required” to atone for sins, in contrast to other offerings. These “sin” offerings cannot atone for sins that were committed INTENTIONALLY. No offerings is sufficient to remove the stain of such sinfulness; that can be done only through repentance and a change of the attitudes that made it possible for the transgressor to flout God’s will.  

The OT says no sacrifice can be offered or accepted by one who sins intentionally. Since the Christian sacrifice, aka Jesus, is supposed to be the one great sacrifice for the sins of all, then it cannot be “for all sinners, and all sins, for all time.” In other words, sin-offerings were never meant for ALL.

On the other hand, Jews thought sin-offerings were needed to atone for deeds that were committed “INADVERTENTLY,” as a result of carelessness, accident and without intent,  (Leviticus 4:2 and Leviticus 4:22).

TWO:  Leviticus 4:21: And he shall carry forth the bullock without the camp, and burn him as he burned the first bullock: is a sin offering for the congregation. "Bullock"? Christianity says to believe that Jesus was a lamb?

Leviticus 4:23: “Or if his sin, wherein he hath sinned, come to his knowledge; he shall bring his offering, a kid of the goats, a male without blemish"Jesus, a Kid of the goats"?

And all these years Christians were taught that Jesus was a lamb?

Leviticus 4:27-28: And if any one of the common people sin through ignorance, while he doeth somewhat against any of the commandments of the Lord concerning things which ought not to be done, and be guilty; Or if his sin, which he hath sinned, come to his knowledge: then he shall bring his offering, a kid of the goats, a female without blemish, for his sin which he hath sinned.

A "kid of the goats, a female without blemish?" Were not Christians taught that Jesus was to be a sacrificial lamb? Was not Jesus a male?  So, the more we examine this sacrificial lamb thing, it just shows that the Christian sacrifice was not a real sacrifice for the common people after all.  But wait, it seems one can bring a lamb, after all.

Leviticus 4:32: And if he bring a lamb for a sin offering, he shall bring it a female without blemish. The key word here is “without.” The Christian Bible clearly says Jesus was whipped bloody, blood ran down his forehead from the Crown of Thorns and he was circumcised.  These alone would disqualify him, for he was NOT without blemish. Oops, I about forgot, Jesus was not a female either―just one more little detail that slips through Christian minds.

Leviticus 4:12: Even the whole bullock shall he carry forth without the camp unto a clean place, where the ashes are poured out, and burn him on the wood with fire: where the ashes are poured out shall he be burnt.  

Leviticus 4:18 And he shall put some of the blood upon the horns of the altar which is before the Lord, that is in the tabernacle of the congregation, and shall pour out all the blood at the bottom of the altar of the burnt offering, which is at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation.

When was the "sacrifice" of Jesus burnt? How can Jesus be a "perfect" sacrifice, if his death does not conform to the Hebrew laws concerning sacrifice? Only if you change the rules set in the OT.

Leviticus 4:13-14 And if the whole congregation of Israel sin through ignorance, and the thing be hid from the eyes of the assembly, and they have done somewhat against any of the commandments of the Lord concerning things which should not be done, and are guilty; When the sin, which they have sinned against it, is known, then the congregation shall offer a young bullock for the sin, and bring him before the tabernacle of the congregation.

"Bullock"? I thought we were meant to believe that Jesus was a lamb? How is Jesus supposed to be a sacrifice for sin, as according to Leviticus Chapter 4, if these sacrifices all speak of "unintentional sins?"

Leviticus 4:35 And he shall take away all the fat thereof, as the fat of the lamb is taken away from the sacrifice of the peace offerings; and the priest shall burn them upon the altar, according to the offerings made by fire unto the Lord: and the priest shall make an atonement for his sin that he hath committed, and it shall be forgiven him.

Jesus, unless the rules had been changed, was not an acceptable sacrifice! One small detail that Christians apparently forget, the fact that the Hebrew law does not ask for or accept human blood sacrifices. But, overlooking that “small” detail, Christians should at least now realize that Jesus was not:

perfect, as his flesh was torn;

a bullock;

a kid of the goats,

a female lamb; and

burnt on the altar.  

Even if Jesus had conformed to these criteria, he could not have been a sacrifice for “intentional” sins

The only place in the Christian Bible that makes the claim that Jesus took away the sin of the world is found in John 1:29. Here, John the Baptist, upon seeing Jesus, makes this claim; “Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world!” 

Christians took those two phases and made them world renowned:

(1) Lamb of God; and

(2) taketh away the sin of the world.

Anyone associating a lamb with sin would follow the prescribed rules established in the OT. 

For the “Outer chatas/sin offerings,” for personal sin/variable chatas the lamb MUST be female. For Nazir Tahor and Metzora, the lamb MUST also be female. 

For burnt offerings (Olah) the male lambs are used. HOWEVER, there is no mentioned of any sin and the male offerings once died MUST be burnt. 

For guilt offerings (asham) the male lamb was used.

For peace offerings (shelamim) the male lamb was used 

For Pesach (Passover) the male lamb WITHOUT blemish was used. Two important rules must be followed: (1) the lamb MUST be without blemish (2) there is no association of any sin involved

For Yom Kippur, the male goat (kid) was indeed used to supposedly take away Jewish sins.

Answer these questions for yourself!

Which “offerings” would you apply to Jesus?

Was Jesus a symbol of a lamb or a goat?

Your honest answers will show that truth is not to be found in the Christian, Hebrew or any bible.

'Oh what a tangled web we weave, when first we practise to deceive.' -Sir Walter Scott (1771-1832), Marmion, A Tale of Flodden Field (1808), Canto VI, XVII



Citation of Hebrew scripture and sources in articles or analyses is not in any way an acceptance, approval or validation of the Jewish religion, its works or scriptures. The Hebrew bible, like the Christian New Testament, is fictitious; From a 6-day creation of the universe; a cunning, walking, talking snake; big fish tales; world flood and an "Invisible Man in the Sky" ― it is all fiction, a bold sham perpetrated on mankind.


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