GOD’S SON
Shmuel
Golding
What is the Name of God's son?
"There
is an interesting verse found in Proverbs, "...and what
is His son's name, if thou canst tell?" (Proverbs 30:4)
The Fundamentalists
who are Trinitarians say that this together with Psalm 2:7 and Psalm 2:12,
state that God has a son and they, the Christians, know His son's name to be
Jesus.
"When we read the text from Proverbs in its entirety, we find that
Agur Ben Yake is describing the weariness of man. Man is philosophizing, he
realizes that he is brutish and without understanding, he lacks wisdom and
desires to have knowledge of God (verse 1-2). But who has been to heaven and
back―in other words, who has seen God? Then he realizes in his reasoning
that there must be a God, for he goes on to say; "Who gathered the winds in his fists?"
But the
mystery―"what is his name, and
what is his son's name, if you can tell it?" And so we see that the
weary man desires to know God, what is his name, etc. The man who seeks
understanding in these things can be answered by Exodus 4:22, where it states, "
"Thou art My son,
this day have I begotten you." (Psalm 2:7) is nothing to do
with Jesus as the fundamentalists claim, but this Psalm clearly states in verse
6 that I (God) have set My king upon
Looking at Psalm 2:12, the KJV has erroneously mistranslated the verse to
read, "Kiss the son" and Trinitarians believe that this is referring
to Jesus. However such a phrase is not to be found in the Hebrew Bible. All
one reads in Hebrew are the words, "nash-ku-bar." The meaning of the Hebrew
word, "bar" is "pure" or "clear"―therefore,
the correct translation is, "embrace purity."
It is
of no use arguing that "bar" is an Aramaic word for son―it is
not. Bar is only used as a construct "son of" as in Bar
Mitzvah, son of the commandments. The Aramaic word for son is "ber'a." Also why should a Psalm
that is in Hebrew need to use one Aramaic word?
Aramaic
is not the language in which David wrote his psalms, and what is more, the
word, "ben," meaning "son" is rendered correctly in verse
7, so why should it not be used in verse 12, if, as the Christians claim, it
means "son"?
Why are they playing with our Bible?
"Who
has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow
of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established
all the ends of the earth? What is his name and the name of his son? Tell me if
you know!"
We CAN tell the
name of God's son! His son's name is
SOURCE:
The Light of
Reason, Shmuel
Golding, page 199.