The Hebrew bible (“Old Testament” to Christians), in Numbers, chapter 23, verses 18 through 19 says that their "God is not a man nor the son of man that He should be capable of lying.” This is restated in I Samuel 15:29: “... the Glory of Israel will not lie nor repent; for God is not a man, that He should repent.” Keep this in mind when studying what brought out below since Christianity claims their man-god Jesus (god incarnate) is actually the Hebrew bible god ― aka Hashem, Adonai etc. When closely examined, does the New Testament 'man-god' Jesus story really fit the criteria of someone who never lied?
(1) According to Mark, chapter 8, verse 12, Jesus says: “In truth, no sign shall be given (by me) to this generation (which refers to the current generation who rejected his claims).” John chapter 12 verse 37 (cf. Acts chapter 2 verse 22) says, in evident contradiction, that Jesus gave “many signs” to this same disbelieving generation.
(2) Mark, chapter 6, verse 5 says that Jesus “could do no miracle” on at least one occasion. The word is could (not would) which means it was not possible for Jesus to perform a miracle at that time. But Mark, chapter 10, verse 27 says just the opposite, that “with God all things are possible.” Hence, Jesus is eliminated as a god.
(3) In John, chapter 5, verse 31, Jesus supposedly says: “If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.” But a little later he reportedly exclaims: “Even if I bear witness of myself, yet my witness is true (John 8:14).” Furthermore, to make matters even more confused and conflicted, this passage was added to the Christian Bible in the sixth century. It is first found in a paper called “Liber Appologeticus” in the fourth century. It is noted that the words are sixth century additions to the original text. The footnote in the Jerusalem Bible, a Catholic translation, says these words are “not in any of the early Greek manuscripts or in the earliest manuscripts of the Vulgate itself.” It is interesting that the Catholic church, who originally added this verse would now admit that it a spurious addition to the Greek Testament!
(4) It is supposedly the Last Supper. John, chapter 13, verse 36 has Peter ask Jesus: “Where are you going?” Then John, chapter 14, verse 5 has Thomas say to him: “We know not where you are going.” But John, chapter 16, verse 5, has Jesus reply: “None of you are asking me where I'm going!” Because Peter asked Jesus where he was going, it is very clear that Jesus has deliberately lied.
(5) In John, chapter 7, verse 38, Jesus reportedly says: “Scripture said: 'From his innermost being shall flow rivers of living water'.” There is no such passage in the Hebrew bible or anything resembling it.
(6) Matthew 2:23 says that: “He came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, he shall be called a Nazarene.” There is no mention of this anywhere in the Hebrew bible ― this prophecy does not exist! In the Old Testament (King James Version), the words “Nazareth” and “Nazarene” do not ever appear!
(7) John 17:12 mentions a “son of perdition” and says the “scriptures are being fulfilled.” There is no reference, however, to a “son of perdition” in the Hebrew bible.
(8) Jesus says that it was Zechariah, son of Berechiah, who was killed in the temple courtyard (Matthew 23:35). Apparently Jesus didn't read the bible very closely or he would have known it was another Zechariah, whose father was Jehoiada, who was killed there (II Chronicles 24:2-22).
(9) Regarding Jesus' stepfather, was he Joseph son of Jacob son of Mattan son of Eliezer (Matthew 1:15-16) or Joseph son of Eli son of Mattat son of Levi (Luke 3:23-24)? And how can both sets of genealogical tables validly include Shealtiel and Zerubabbel (Matthew 1:12; Luke 3:27), given that both of these men are descendants of Jeconiah (1 Chronicles 3:16-19), of whom the Hebrew god has said: “No man of his seed shall prosper, sitting on the throne of David or ruling any more in Judah” (Jeremiah 22-30)?
(10) Was John the Baptist Elijah, as Jesus claimed (Matthew 11:14)? If so, why did John himself deny it (John 1:21)? Would “Elijah” have been so unsure of Jesus' identity (Luke 7:19-20)? And where in the Hebrew scriptures is it written that Elijah would be mistreated, as Jesus claimed (Mark 9:13)? The Hebrew bible scriptures indicate the contrary, that Elijah will be successful in his mission of restoring harmony among the people (Malachi 4:5-6). Moreover, Mark 9:11-13 and Mark 6:16 declares that: “Elijah has come” and “It is John who I beheaded.” There is no indication from the Hebrew bible that Elijah would be beheaded. I refer you, once again, to Malachi 4:5-6.
(11) Who's to judge the sinner? According to Jesus in John, chapter 5, verse 22: “For the Father judges no man but has committed all judgment to the Son” (meaning Jesus himself). But, then Jesus contradicts himself; “I judge no man” (John 8:15) and “I did not come to judge the world (John 12:47).” So who did? Listen to Jesus this time: “You (disciples) shall judge the twelve tribes of Israel” (Matthew 19:28). Unfortunately, this contradicts Jesus' original warning to them: “Not to judge, lest you be judged (Matthew 7:1).”
(12) Paul says. “It is shameful for a man to wear his hair long” (I Corinthians 11:14). Glaringly, this is the only way Jesus is ever pictured.
(13) “Blessed are the peacemakers for they shall be called sons of God” (Matthew 5:8). Yet, Jesus asserted the contrary; that he “did not come to bring peace on earth, but a sword” in Matthew, chapter 10, verse 34.
(14) John, chapter 14, verse 9 says: “he who has seen me (Jesus) has seen the Father.” This would include his mother, disciples, and others. However, the Hebrew bible says “He who has seen the face of God shall die (Exodus 33:20).” (Note: Even today, thousands of Christians claim to have seen Jesus.)
(15) According to Acts 7:53 and Galatians 3:19, the Torah was given to the Jewish people by “angels.” But, according to Exodus 20:1, it was given to Moses by God: “And God spoke all these words.”
(16) Acts 7:14 says that 75 souls went down to Egypt. Yet, Genesis 46:27 it says “threescore and ten” (70) went down to Egypt.
(17) Jesus tells Peter to buy a sword (Luke 22:36). Peter reportedly uses his sword to cut off the ear of a temple guard (John 18:10; Matthew 26:52-53). But Jesus, even though he urged Peter to buy a sword, criticizes Peter: “All those who take up the sword shall perish by the sword (Matthew 26:52).”
(18) Continuing with Matthew 26, in verses 17 through 20 make it appear that the Last Supper was a Passover Seder. However, John 19:14 shows that it was the preparation day for the Passover.
(19) Hebrews, chapter 9, verse 22 says: “Without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sin.” But, the Hebrew bible, in Isaiah, chapter 43, verses 23 through 25 teaches just the opposite; “You (Israelites) have not honored me (god) with your (blood) sacrifices. (Nevertheless) I will forgive your sins.” And Hosea, chapter 14, verse 2 says God accepts “words” of thanks.
(20) Romans, chapter 10, verse 13: “For whoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” But Matthew, chapter 7, verse 21 says “Not everybody who says to me (Jesus), Lord, Lord, shall enter the Kingdom.”
(21) Ecclesiastes 1:4 claims that the earth does abideth forever. In II Peter 3:10, the opposite is stated.
(22) Why does John 8:14 say that: “If Jesus bears witness of himself his witness is true ..." if John 5:31 says “If Jesus bears witness of himself his witness is not true?”
(23) According to Matthew 17:11 and Mark 9:2, Jesus led Peter, James, and John up a high mountain after six days. Or was it eight days according to Luke 9:28?
(24) The claim is made that Jesus “justified” the sinner (Romans 4:5; Romans 15:9). But, the Bible in Proverbs 17, verse 15 teaches that “He who justifies the sinner is an abomination to God.”
Excluding the tall tales, if there is any area in which the Christian bible's fictitious bull shit is most apparent, it is that of inconsistencies and contradictions. The book is a veritable miasma of contradictory assertions and obvious disagreements, which is to be expected in any writing concocted over approximately 1,900+ years by 40 or 50 different writers (including modern rewrites into version after version). Never forget, none of the writers witnessed anything -- it is all fiction, starting with its source, the Hebrew Bible with its 6-day creation of the universe and a cunning, walking talking snake!
I have not outlined anywhere near all the contradictions found in the New Testament. However, it should now be apparent that the conflicting accounts are so very numerous and Christianity’s claim that its central character, the man-god Jesus (god incarnate), never lied is not supported at all. In fact, quite the contrary!
The bibles ― old and new ― were written when the population was illiterate; there were no scriptures for the masses, nor could the masses even read, let alone critically analyze them. People thought the world was flat and the sun revolved around the world. IGNORANCE RULED. Now YOU KNOW DIFFERENT, so you must not be ignorant and fall for these ancient fictions regarding an "Invisible Man in the Sky."
"Nothing in all the world is more dangerous than sincere ignorance and conscientious stupidity." -Martin Luther King Jr. (1929-1968)
Citation of Hebrew scripture and sources in articles or analyses is not in any way an acceptance, approval or validation of the Jewish religion, its works or scriptures. The Hebrew bible, like the Christian New Testament, is fictitious; From a 6-day creation of the universe; a cunning, walking, talking snake; big fish tales; world flood and an "Invisible Man in the Sky" ― it is all fiction, a bold sham perpetrated on mankind.